At the recent Full Council meeting, the Leader of the Council's written reply to my question (above) was characteristically missing the point. If he is correct in interpreting what happened on 8/8 was "wanton criminality", then why didn't Sutton or Bromley experience any rioting? Unlike our outer London neighbours, Croydon has socially deprived ghettos a few miles from pockets known as 'Millionaires Row'. Is this a pre-disposing factor? Yes or no?
This spinning of the events of 8/8 as 'criminality', and not rioting, mirrors what Gavin Barwell MP has recently said on the BBC and Mayor Graham Bass at a recent social event (see Inside Croydon).
My question was:
Given our neighbouring outer London boroughs, Sutton and Bromley, experienced barely any unrest, to what extent is income inequality (note: not poverty) within our borough a predisposing factor when considering what caused the riots on 8/8?
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Tags croydon, greenparty
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